This looks like something they got from the internet and just pasted it and sent it to you. I've seen such things on web sites before. I'll just give my comments on some of the things and hope they'll be helpful.
<<II Peter 3:9 states, "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that ANY should perish, but that all should come to repentance.">>
The Lord "is longsuffering toward US." Who is the US? Is it every single human being without exception? Look at who the epistle is written to: "to those equally precious with us, having obtained faith in [the] righteousness of our God and our Savior, Jesus Christ (2 Pet. 1:1). So when Peter says that the Lord is not willing that ANY should perish, he is talking about ANY of US.
Now if ANY meant everyone without exception, then this passage is saying that God is postponing judgment day because he wants everyone without exception to be saved. And since everyone without exception will not be saved, judgment day will be postponed indefinitely. Also, those who say that God is not willing that any without exception should perish believe in an eternally disappointed god who cannot carry out that which he wishes. The true and living God is one who does all that He pleases (Psalm 115:3).
<<I Timothy 2:3-6 says," ... this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one mediator also between man and God, the man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself as a ransom for all, the testimony given at the proper time.">>
1 Timothy 2:1 uses the term "all men," and verse 2 explains who the "all men" are. They are all KINDS of men. They are not all men without exception; they are all men without distinction. Those who use this to try to prove Arminianism must believe in a god who cannot fulfill what he desires, since he desires that all men be saved, but he cannot actually do that which he desires.
<<Titus 2:11 states, "For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men...">>
Again, it means all kinds of men.
<<To stay consistent with his philosophy, the hyper-Calvinist must re-write John 3:16 as follows:
"For God so loved the elect, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever was predestined to should not perish, but have eternal life.">>
The "world" does not mean "every human being without exception." Examples:
"The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him." (John 12:19)
"If ye were of the world, the world would love his own: but because ye are not of the world, but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hateth you." (John 15:19)
"But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world." (1 Corinthians 11:32)
"Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him." (1 John 2:15)
"Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not." (1 John 3:1)
"Marvel not, my brethren, if the world hate you." (1 John 3:13)
"They are of the world: therefore speak they of the world, and the world heareth them." (1 John 4:5)
"And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness." (1 John 5:19)
Obviously, "world" does not mean "every human being without exception." Now what does "world" mean in John 3:16? In John 3:16, Jesus was talking to Nicodemus, a self-righteous Pharisee who believed that God's love was confined to the Jews only. Jesus told him this astounding thing -- that God's love was not confined just to the Jews, but was also manifested toward the Gentiles. God so loved the world -- both Jews and Gentiles -- that He gave His only begotten son. The Jews knew exactly what this meant. The Jews knew that Jesus was not talking about every individual without exception. When the Jews talked about the "world" in contrast with "us," they meant "Jews and Gentiles." John again talks about this in 1 John 2:2. He says that Jesus is not the propitiation for the Jews only, but the whole world, including the Gentiles. This is the mystery about which Paul speaks in Ephesians 3: "How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery ... That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel" (Ephesians 3:3-6; also see Colossians 1:25-27). The mystery that was hidden from ages and generations that is now revealed is that Jesus saves the world -- both Jews and Gentiles.
<<The hyper-Calvinist must condemn Joshua as a fool, for in Joshua 24:15 he announces, "Choose this day whom you will serve ... ",and under hyper-Calvinism, man has no choice in the matter -- he is either elect or non-elect.>>
The Arminians never finish this verse. See what choices Joshua is offering for the people to serve: either the gods their fathers served or the gods of the Amorites. He's saying that they can choose nothing but wickedness! God's eternal predestination and decree does not eliminate choice; it just means that the choices people make have already been decreed from before time. And those who are wicked CANNOT choose God (Rom. 3:10-12; 1 Cor. 2:14; Rom. 8:5-8).
<<InJohn 12:32, Jesus says, "And I, if I be lifted up, will draw all men unto me.">>
If "all men" here means "everyone without exception," then why are all men not saved? It is because the will of the sinner overrides the will of God. This raises the sinner to the place of God, which is utter blasphemy. The word for "draw" here (and in John 6:44) actually means "drag by force" (see John 21:11, Acts 16:19, Acts 21:30, James 2:6. Again, "all men" means "all without distinction."
<<Did Jesus speak of anyone being predestined for salvation? Hardly>>
John 10:27-29 is one example. But what do these God-haters have to say about the rest of John 10, especially when Jesus says that the reason these Jews don't believe him is because they are not of His sheep (v. 26)? He says that He lays down His life for the sheep (v. 15), then in verse 26, He says that these Jews are not of His sheep! Obviously, he is saying that he is not laying down His life for them!
<<1. Divine election is 'according to the foreknowledge of God." This means that election is a special standing before God that comes to the individual on the basis of divine foreknowledge. God foreknows; He sees in advance that we will accept Christ as personal Savior and become His children. He therefore elects us on the basis of our faith already having been exercised in Christ.>>
This is an obvious, blatant form of salvation conditioned on the sinner. God does not choose to save until he sees who will chose Him. This is a god whose will is formed by his creation.
<< The Bible says that we are "elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (I Pet. 1:2). Therefore, election has a condition. We are "elect according to the foreknowledge of God, in His wisdom, foreknows that we will accept Christ.>>
Foreknowledge does not mean looking into the future. Foreknowledge is fore-loving.
I would also encourage you to look at www.outsidethecamp.org/efl4.htm for more verses.
I hope this helps. But I should tell you that the main issue is THE WORK OF CHRIST. That's where the discussion should be centered. What did Christ accomplish on the cross? Those who believe in universal atonement believe that it is NOT the work of Christ alone that makes the difference between salvation and damnation; instead, they believe that it is the work of the SINNER that makes the difference between salvation and damnation.
Soli Deo Gloria,
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