> In regards to the mention in 1 John 2:22 as not referring to the
> "world" as
> those who are not elect, but rather to the "world" of the elect,
> what do you
> do with ALL of the other mentions of "world" (same word) in the same book?
> Don't say context, because 1 John 2:22's context does not
> facilitate "world"
> meaning elect only.
Okay -- let's go ahead and look at all the other places where the word "world" is mentioned in 1 John. While we're at it, let's look at ALL of the books John wrote. Now please show me where "world" means every person without exception in any instance. As you will see, "world" (kosmos) means different things in different places.
You mention that I take "world" in 1 John 2:22 to mean "world of the elect." But this (election) is not the emphasis of this verse (or of John 3:16). The emphasis is that salvation is not confined to the Jews only. Jesus clearly said in John 3:16 that "whosoever believes" is who makes up this world.
> Secondly, what did the guy in Heb 10:29 get "sanctified" by??? IT says
> blood. Well, I thought that only the elect had access to the blood? It
> appears not, since this guy was not saved, yet something happened in his
> life by the blood. Makes no sense in light of limited atonement.
To be sanctified means to be set apart. These people were set apart in the covenant, a covenant ratified by blood. Yet not all who are set apart are regenerate. Look at Israel in the Old Testament; they were sanctified; they were God's covenant people; yet most of them perished. Take a look at 1 Corinthians 7:14: "For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now they are holy." The Holy Spirit is saying that even the unbelievers in a household where at least one believing parent is present are sanctified -- are holy. And when one is part of a visible church where the true gospel is preached, that person is sanctified -- set apart -- in the sphere of the covenant. Hebrews 10:26-29 shows how terrible it is to be within the sphere of the covenant, hearing the truth, and yet rejecting the truth. It is trampling underfoot the Son of God. This passage says nothing about Christ's atonement for such people.
> Thirdly, there is NOT ONE scripture that says Christ died only for the
There most certainly are. Let me give you a couple:
John 10:15: "As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep."
(Is the sheep everyone without exception? Look at what Jesus says in the very same chapter, verse 26: "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you." Jesus said He lays down His life for the sheep, and then says to the Jews who were there that they were not of His sheep. Did Jesus lay down His life for those He said were not of His sheep? Another thing to think about: Why didn't they believe? Think about it. Notice He didn't say, "But ye are not of my sheep, because ye believe not.")
Matthew 1:21: "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS, for he shall save his people from their sins."
(Did Christ's people include those whom Christ said were not of His sheep?)
> You use reasoning and inferences, and when there is a
> scripture that
> says He died for the whole world, suddenly the "world" does not mean world
> there( 1John 2:22).
It certainly DOES mean world there.
> As I pointed out, then that would mean you would have
> to take "world" in the rest of 1 John to mean the same thing,
> which makes no
And let's see if it makes sense for you to insert "every human being without exception" into those passages. You will see that it makes no sense to do that either.
> Fourthly, Paul said it plain as day "For to this end we both labor and
> suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of
> all men, especially of those who believe. "
Notice here (1 Timothy 4:10) that Christ is not mentioned. The Literal Translation more accurately translates this passage: "for to this we also labor and are reproached, because we hope on the living God, who is deliverer of all men, especially of believers." The word for "savior" can also be translated "preserver." God providentially preserves all, and he takes particular care of His people. This is akin to the passage, "As we have therefore opportunity, let us do good unto all men, especially unto them who are of the household of faith" (Galatians 6:10).
> Now understanding it
> is not key
> to salvation, just believing God is key, that is all.
What? How can one believe without understanding? The Bible says that those who do not have understanding are lost.
> So your
> questions at
> the end, really are futile; because they are based in reasoning,
So reasoning is out. What are you doing trying to reason with me, then?
Would you like me to quote you some of the tons of verses that talk about KNOWLEDGE and UNDERSTANDING? The Bible says that those who have a zeal for God but not according to KNOWLEDGE, those who are IGNORANT of the righteousness revealed in the gospel, are lost (Romans 10:2-3). Salvation without knowledge is no salvation at all.
So let's talk about the gospel here. Is salvation conditioned on the sinner in any way to any degree, or is salvation conditioned SOLELY on the atoning blood and imputed righteousness of Christ?
Soli Deo Gloria,
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